I have a question about the calculation of the allocated fixed overhead costs. When calculating the margin of 8% only fixed costs (Personnel and Store rent) are taken into consideration and variable costs e.g. purchase prices are ignored. Therefore, the 8% only represents the profit margin after fixed costs if I am not mistaken. When calculating the fixed overhead costs, however, the 8% margin is applied as if it represents the profit margin after all costs (including purchase prices). For me, this seems inconsistent and I don´t really understand why this is possible.
Hi, my question is related to the calculations performed in Question 2 of the solution "Why can other competitors offer lower prices?" (page 7-9)